Daily MCQ Paper – 22 March 2026

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Daily Practice Sheet — 50 Questions

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CLAT GURUKUL

Daily MCQ Practice Paper

Date: 22 March 2026 Total Questions: 50
Time Allowed: 90 minutes Maximum Marks: 50
Marking: +1 for correct, No negative marking

Student Name:  

Batch:      Date:  

INSTRUCTIONS

  1. Circle or mark ONE option (A/B/C/D) for each question
  2. MANDATORY: Write your justification (2 lines) below each question
  3. After completing, scan ALL pages into a single PDF file
  4. Upload the PDF at: catgurukul.com/courses/daily-mcq-practice
  5. Fill the Answer Grid on the last page — this is checked first

Legal Reasoning (विधिक तर्कशक्ति) [Q1 – Q10]
A factory owner, Ramesh, stored large quantities of industrial chemicals in his factory located adjacent to a residential area. Due to a crack in the storage tank, the chemicals leaked into the groundwater, causing several residents to fall ill. Ramesh argues that the crack was caused by an unprecedented earthquake — an Act of God — that occurred the previous night. Residents, however, claim that the storage system was outdated and poorly maintained.
Q1. Which legal principle is MOST applicable to this case?
A Principle of Volenti Non Fit Injuria
B Rule in Rylands v. Fletcher (Strict Liability)
C Principle of Contributory Negligence
D Doctrine of Res Ipsa Loquitur

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

(Refer to the passage above — Q1)
Q2. If the earthquake is proven to be an Act of God of extraordinary magnitude that could not have been foreseen, Ramesh’s defence would:
A Fail completely, as strict liability has no exceptions
B Succeed, as Act of God is a recognised defence under strict liability
C Partially succeed, reducing his liability by half
D Succeed only if residents had prior knowledge of the risk

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q3. Under the law of negligence, to succeed in a claim against Ramesh, the residents do NOT need to prove:
A That Ramesh owed them a duty of care
B That there was a breach of that duty
C That Ramesh intended to cause harm
D That damage resulted from the breach

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q4. Principle: A promise to compensate a person who has already voluntarily done something for the promisor is a valid contract under Section 25(2) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. Facts: Suman voluntarily saved Arjun’s life during a road accident. Six months later, Arjun, in gratitude, promised in writing to pay Suman ₹50,000. Arjun later refuses to pay, citing absence of fresh consideration. Is Arjun’s promise enforceable?
A No, because past consideration is no consideration in contract law
B Yes, because it falls under the exception for voluntary past acts under Section 25(2)
C No, because the promise was not made at the time of the act
D Yes, because gratuitous promises are always enforceable in India

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q5. Principle: Article 21 of the Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which the Supreme Court has interpreted to include the right to shelter. Facts: The state government demolished Mohan’s home without prior notice to build a public road. Mohan had lived there for 15 years. Which Fundamental Right of Mohan has been PRIMARILY violated?
A Article 14 — Right to Equality
B Article 19(1)(f) — Right to property
C Article 21 — Right to Life including the right to shelter
D Article 300A — Constitutional right to property

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q6. Principle: A person is guilty of an offence only if he has a guilty mind (mens rea) and commits the guilty act (actus reus). Facts: A surgeon performs a necessary operation following all standard medical protocols. The patient dies due to a rare unforeseeable post-operative complication. The surgeon is:
A Guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
B Guilty of causing death by rash and negligent act
C Not guilty, as there was no mens rea — neither intention nor knowledge of likely death
D Guilty under Section 304A IPC for negligent act

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q7. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, divorce by mutual consent under Section 13B requires that the parties have been:
A Living separately for at least two years and agree to dissolve the marriage
B Living separately for at least one year and mutually agree that the marriage should be dissolved
C Separated by a court decree before filing for mutual consent
D Married for at least five years before filing for mutual consent divorce

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q8. Principle: Defamation requires (a) a false statement of fact, (b) published to a third party, and (c) causing damage to reputation. Truth is an absolute defence. Facts: A newspaper publishes that businessman Vikram was convicted of fraud. Vikram was in fact acquitted. The report was based on an unverified old source. Vikram’s business suffered serious losses. Vikram’s claim for defamation will:
A Fail, because newspapers have freedom of the press under Article 19(1)(a)
B Succeed, as all elements — false statement, publication, and reputational damage — are established
C Fail, because economic loss from a business is not covered under defamation
D Succeed only if Vikram proves the editor acted with malice

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

The State of X enacted a law prohibiting any public gathering, protest, or demonstration within 500 metres of any educational institution, citing disruption to students. A student union challenged this law as unconstitutional.
Q9. The student union would MOST appropriately challenge this law under:
A Article 19(1)(a) alone — Freedom of speech and expression
B Article 19(1)(b) alone — Freedom to assemble peaceably without arms
C Both Article 19(1)(a) and Article 19(1)(b)
D Article 21 — Right to life and personal liberty

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

(Refer to passage above — Q9)
Q10. The State’s primary constitutional defence for the law would rely on:
A The law is protected under the Ninth Schedule and cannot be challenged
B Article 19(2) — reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech in the interest of public order
C Article 19(3) — reasonable restrictions on freedom of assembly in the interests of public order
D Both Article 19(2) and Article 19(3) — the restriction is justified under both provisions

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Logical Reasoning (तार्किक तर्कशक्ति) [Q11 – Q20]
Q11. All lawyers are officers of the court. All officers of the court are professionals. No professional is uneducated. Which of the following conclusions DEFINITELY follow?
I. All lawyers are professionals.
II. No lawyer is uneducated.
A Only I follows
B Only II follows
C Neither I nor II follows
D Both I and II follow

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q12. Argument: ‘Introducing standardized aptitude testing in law school admissions will improve the overall quality of the legal profession.’ Which of the following, if true, would MOST strengthen this argument?
A Countries with standardized law admission tests have seen a rise in frivolous litigation
B Studies show standardized test scores are strong predictors of performance in law school and legal practice
C Law firms complain about the quality of graduates from certain institutions
D Several prominent lawyers never performed well on standardized tests

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q13. Statement: ‘Parents should encourage their children to read newspapers daily to stay informed about current affairs.’ Which assumption is IMPLICIT in this statement?
A Children who read newspapers will become journalists
B Reading newspapers is an effective way for children to stay informed about current affairs
C All children have access to newspapers
D Current affairs knowledge is unimportant for children

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q14. Statements: All progressive societies protect the rights of their minorities. Country Z is considered a progressive society. Which conclusion LOGICALLY follows?
A Country Z has no minority communities
B Minority communities in Country Z face discrimination
C Country Z protects the rights of its minority communities
D Minority communities in Country Z are the majority population

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Online education has fundamentally changed the learning landscape. While traditional classrooms offer structured schedules and face-to-face interaction, online platforms provide flexibility and accessibility. A recent study found that students who completed online courses demonstrated knowledge retention comparable to classroom counterparts. However, critics argue that dropout rates are significantly higher in online courses, with many students lacking the self-discipline for independent learning. Proponents counter that dropout rates are misleading because many online learners intentionally enroll for partial completion — to gain specific skills rather than complete an entire course.
Q15. The MAIN point of the passage is:
A Online education is superior to traditional classroom education
B Traditional education will soon be replaced by online platforms
C Online education presents both opportunities and challenges compared to traditional learning
D Students in online courses fundamentally lack self-discipline

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

(Refer to passage — Q15)
Q16. Which of the following, if true, would MOST weaken the proponents’ counter-argument about dropout rates?
A A survey showing most online dropouts leave due to technical problems, not lack of motivation
B Data showing 80% of intentional partial completers still find the experience valuable
C A study showing that students who partially complete online courses gain significantly fewer skills than full completers
D Research showing online course fees are substantially lower than traditional courses

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q17. The critics’ use of high dropout rates as evidence against online education assumes that:
A Online students are less intelligent than classroom students
B High dropout rates indicate a systemic problem with online education rather than deliberate student choice
C Traditional education has a zero dropout rate
D All online courses are equally difficult

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q18. Judge : Courtroom :: Surgeon : ?
A Hospital
B Patient
C Operating Theatre
D Medical College

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q19. Plaintiff : Defendant :: Prosecution : ?
A Lawyer
B Judge
C Defence
D Witness

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q20. A study found that cities with more police officers per capita have higher crime rates. A researcher concludes that more police officers cause more crime. Which statement BEST explains why this conclusion is flawed?
A The study may have only been conducted in developed countries
B Cities with high crime rates tend to hire more police in response to existing crime — not the other way around
C Police officers are also citizens who can commit crimes
D The number of police officers is irrelevant to crime rates

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

English Language (अंग्रेज़ी भाषा) [Q21 – Q30]
The rule of law is the foundation upon which democratic governance is built. It signifies that all individuals, institutions, and entities — whether public or private, including the state itself — are accountable to laws that are publicly promulgated, equally enforced, and independently adjudicated. Far from being a mere procedural mechanism, the rule of law embodies the idea that justice must be not only done, but seen to be done. When judicial independence is compromised, when laws are applied selectively, or when powerful actors operate above the law, the very fabric of democracy begins to unravel. The challenge for modern democracies is not merely to create laws, but to cultivate a culture of lawfulness — one where compliance stems not from fear of punishment but from a genuine belief in the legitimacy of the legal order.
Q21. What does the phrase ‘justice must be not only done, but seen to be done’ mean in the context of the passage?
A Justice should be performed publicly before a large audience
B Judicial processes must be transparent and perceptibly fair to maintain public trust
C Courts should install cameras to broadcast all proceedings live
D People should personally witness the punishment of criminals

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

(Refer to passage — Q21)
Q22. According to the passage, the rule of law is undermined when:
A Lawyers charge excessive fees for their services
B The constitution is amended frequently
C Powerful actors operate above the law and laws are selectively applied
D Citizens choose not to participate in elections

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q23. The passage suggests that genuine compliance with law stems from:
A Fear of punishment by the authorities
B The strength and reach of the police force
C Belief in the legitimacy of the legal order
D International pressure on governments

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q24. The word ‘promulgated’ in the passage most closely means:
A Debated extensively in parliament
B Publicly declared and made known
C Enforced strictly by the police
D Written in complex legal language

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q25. Choose the word CLOSEST in meaning to ‘perfidious’:
A Loyal
B Treacherous
C Courageous
D Indifferent

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q26. Choose the word MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to ‘lucid’:
A Clear
B Obscure
C Bright
D Enlightened

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q27. Identify the grammatically CORRECT sentence:
A The committee have decided to postpone their meeting indefinitely.
B The committee has decided to postpone its meeting indefinitely.
C The committee has decided to postpone their meeting indefinitely.
D The committee have decided to postpone its meeting indefinitely.

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q28. Choose the most appropriate word to fill the blank: ‘The judge’s _______ remarks during the hearing helped all parties understand the complex points of law.’
A ambiguous
B verbose
C perspicuous
D obscure

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q29. Arrange the following sentences in the correct logical order:
P. The adversarial system assumes that truth emerges from the clash of opposing arguments.
Q. Both systems aim to serve justice, but through different methodologies.
R. In contrast, the inquisitorial system places the judge in a more active investigative role.
S. The adversarial system of justice, common in common law countries, relies on two opposing parties to present their cases.
A S-P-R-Q
B P-S-R-Q
C S-R-P-Q
D Q-S-P-R

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q30. What can be INFERRED about democracies in which laws are selectively enforced?
A They have strong and independent judicial systems
B Their legal order lacks legitimacy and public trust
C They are actively reforming their legal systems
D Their citizens are more law-abiding due to strict enforcement

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Current Affairs / GK (सामयिक घटनाक्रम) [Q31 – Q40]
Q31. The Supreme Court’s landmark 9-judge bench judgment in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) held that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
A Article 14
B Article 19
C Article 21
D Article 25

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q32. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), which replaced the Indian Penal Code of 1860, came into effect from:
A 1 January 2024
B 1 July 2024
C 15 August 2024
D 26 January 2025

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q33. India’s Chandrayaan-3 mission achieved a historic soft landing near the lunar south pole in:
A June 2023
B August 2023
C December 2023
D March 2024

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q34. The 2024 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to:
A Narges Mohammadi
B Denis Mukwege
C Nihon Hidankyo — Japanese atomic bomb survivors’ organisation
D Climate activists from Pacific Island nations

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q35. The ‘Right to be Forgotten’ — the right to have outdated personal information removed from digital platforms — is primarily derived from which fundamental right in India?
A Article 19(1)(a) — Freedom of speech and expression
B Article 21 — Right to Privacy (post-Puttaswamy judgment)
C Article 14 — Right to Equality
D Article 25 — Freedom of Religion

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q36. The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of:
A The G20
B The United Nations
C The World Trade Organisation
D The Commonwealth of Nations

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q37. India hosted the G20 Summit in September 2023. Which city was the venue?
A Mumbai
B Chennai
C New Delhi
D Bengaluru

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q38. The Paris Agreement on climate change aims to limit global average temperature rise to:
A 1.5°C to 2°C above pre-industrial levels
B 2°C to 3°C above current levels
C 1°C above pre-industrial levels only
D 3°C above year-2000 levels

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q39. Who was sworn in as the 51st Chief Justice of India in November 2024?
A Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
B Justice Sanjiv Khanna
C Justice B.R. Gavai
D Justice Surya Kant

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q40. COP29 — the 29th UN Climate Change Conference — was held in 2024 in:
A Egypt
B UAE (Dubai)
C Azerbaijan (Baku)
D Brazil (Belém)

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Quantitative Techniques (मात्रात्मक तकनीक) [Q41 – Q50]
Q41. A student scored 480 marks out of 600 in Class 12 board examinations. What is the percentage of marks obtained?
A 75%
B 78%
C 80%
D 82%

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q42. In a law school, the ratio of female to male students is 3:2. If there are 240 female students, what is the total number of students in the school?
A 160
B 360
C 400
D 480

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q43. A stationery shop buys pens at ₹8 each and sells them at ₹12 each. What is the profit percentage?
A 33.33%
B 40%
C 50%
D 66.67%

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q44. Arjun deposits ₹15,000 in a bank at a simple interest rate of 8% per annum. What is the total amount he receives after 3 years?
A ₹18,000
B ₹18,600
C ₹19,200
D ₹19,800

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

The table below shows the number of students who appeared and passed in CLAT from five states in 2024:

State | Appeared | Passed
UP | 8,000 | 1,600
Bihar | 5,000 | 1,250
Delhi | 4,000 | 1,200
Maharashtra | 3,000 | 750
Rajasthan | 2,000 | 400

Q45. Which state had the highest pass percentage?
A UP
B Bihar
C Delhi
D Maharashtra

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

(Refer to the table — Q45)
Q46. What is the total number of students who appeared from all five states?
A 20,000
B 22,000
C 24,000
D 25,000

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q47. The number of students who failed from Bihar is what percentage of the total students who appeared from Bihar?
A 70%
B 72%
C 75%
D 78%

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q48. Find the missing number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ___
A 40
B 42
C 44
D 48

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q49. What is the compound interest on ₹10,000 at 10% per annum for 2 years?
A ₹2,000
B ₹2,100
C ₹2,200
D ₹2,500

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

Q50. In a class of 40 students, the ratio of students who passed to those who failed is 7:1. How many students passed?
A 30
B 32
C 35
D 38

Your Answer: [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] (circle one)   |   Justify your answer below:

ANSWER GRID — Fill this for quick evaluation

Mark your answers clearly. This grid is checked first by the AI evaluator.

Q A B C D   Q A B C D
1   26
2   27
3   28
4   29
5   30
6   31
7   32
8   33
9   34
10   35
11   36
12   37
13   38
14   39
15   40
16   41
17   42
18   43
19   44
20   45
21   46
22   47
23   48
24   49
25   50

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